Why would my 2nd-great-grandfather's second marriage record say he was not previously married?

I have found 3 marriage records for my 2nd-great-grandfather, he also had children in all 3. His first marriage was in 1937 and they divorced in 1939 (I have both the marriage record and divorce record). I found the marriage record for his second marriage in 1939, which states he "was not previously married and that he has no wife living." Is there any reason this would have happened other than he lied? BTW - I'm relatively new to genealogy, so if this is something obvious I'm sorry in advance!